suffering servant
Clear Evidence Why Isaiah 53 Does Not Refer To Jesus
By Gerald Sigal© 2013 by Gerald SigalAll Rights ReservedAlso by Gerald Sigal (Many books available in Kindle editions)The Jew and the Christian Missionary: A Jewish Response to Missionary ChristianityAnti-Judaism in the New TestamentTrinity Doctrine Error: A Jewish AnalysisThe Blood Atonement Deception: How Christianity Distorted Biblical AtonementThe Resurrection Fantasy: Reinventing JesusThe Virgin Birth Myth: The Misconception of JesusIsaiah 53: Who Is the Servant? ISAIAH 53: JESUS IS
Zalman Kravitz
The Problem Around The Suffering Servant Continually Attributed To Jesus
Continued from Part 1 ISAIAH 52:13-15 52:13: “Behold My servant” The phrase, “My servant,” presents a problem for the trinitarian doctrine: servant and master are two separate entities. A servant by definition is always in an inferior position to his master. John’s Jesus acknowledges: “A slave is not greater than his master, neither one who is sent greater than the one who sent him” (John 13:16). The sending of Jesus would have taken place while the trinity trio supposedly were all equa
Zalman Kravitz
Interesting Comparisons Of The Gospels About Jesus
Continued from Part 5 ISAIAH 53:3 53:3: “He was despised, and rejected of men … and as one from whom men hide their face: he was despised, and we esteemed him not.” Comparing the description of the servant with that of Jesus. Rejection of the servant contrasts greatly with the Gospel accounts of the extent of Jesus’ popularity throughout his life generally (Luke 2:52) and during his public ministry in particular. The servant is said to be “despised,” “rejected,” one “from whom men hide th
Zalman Kravitz
Isaiah 53 - The Suffering Servant
An examination of the text of Isaiah 53: How it is understood by Jews and how it is often presented by missionaries in an attempt to mislead Jews and influence them to convert to Christianity. Part 1: Stream Audio Download MP3 Part 2: Stream Audio Download MP3
Zalman Kravitz
Did Israel suffer primarily because of its own sins?
The Jewish interpretation of Isaiah 53 maintains that the suffering servant of Israel suffered because of the persecutions by the Gentile nations. I understand that the nations overdid it when persecuting Israel but didn't Israel suffer primarily because of its own sins? Please explain. Answer: It is true that the Jewish Scriptures show that there are times when the nation of Israel undergoes suffering as divine retribution for sin. But, it also shows that suffering is not always an indication
Zalman Kravitz
What is the meaning of "And his grave was set with the wicked, and with the rich in his deaths"?
What is the meaning of "And his grave was set with the wicked, and with the rich in his deaths" (Isaiah 53:9)? Answer: The suffering servant's "deaths" as well as the description of his subsequent revival are metaphors for the fortunes of Israel. The phrases "for he was cut off out of the land of the living" (verse 8), "his grave was set" (verse 9), and "in his deaths" (verse 9) are not to be taken literally. The metaphor "his grave was set" describing an event in the life of God's suffering se
Zalman Kravitz
Did Jews believe the suffering servant was the messiah?
Is it true (as Christians claim) that Jews at the time of the destruction of the Second Temple believed that Isaiah 53 spoke of a suffering messiah who was to die as an atonement for the sins of others and then be resurrected? Let's find out. Answer: A number of interpretations as to the identity of the "suffering servant" and what he was to accomplish may have been current during the Second Temple period. However, there is no evidence to support the Christian contention that the interpretation
Zalman Kravitz