jesus


What is the meaning of "And his grave was set with the wicked, and with the rich in his deaths"?

What is the meaning of "And his grave was set with the wicked, and with the rich in his deaths"?

What is the meaning of "And his grave was set with the wicked, and with the rich in his deaths" (Isaiah 53:9)? Answer: The suffering servant's "deaths" as well as the description of his subsequent revival are metaphors for the fortunes of Israel. The phrases "for he was cut off out of the land of the living" (verse 8), "his grave was set" (verse 9), and "in his deaths" (verse 9) are not to be taken literally. The metaphor "his grave was set" describing an event in the life of God's suffering se


Zalman Kravitz

Zalman Kravitz

Why do Jews reject the Christian claim that "And his grave was set with the wicked,...

Why do Jews reject the Christian claim that "And his grave was set with the wicked,...

Why do Jews reject the Christian claim that "And his grave was set with the wicked, and with the rich in his deaths" (Isaiah 53:9) refers to Jesus? Read on to find out... Answer: Some Christian commentators connect "wicked" with the lestai ("thieves," "brigands"), used by Matthew and Mark (Matthew 27:38, Mark 15:27) to describe the two men crucified along with Jesus. But, crucifixion was not used as a means for executing common criminals. These two men were put to death for opposing Roman rule


Zalman Kravitz

Zalman Kravitz

How does Isaiah 53:8 show that the death of Jesus should not be considered as atonement for all

How does Isaiah 53:8 show that the death of Jesus should not be considered as atonement for all

How does Isaiah 53:8 show that the death of Jesus should not be considered as atonement for the sins of humankind? Read on to find out. Answer: Verse 8, a statement made by the enemies of the suffering servant of the Lord, shows that Jesus could not be the suffering servant. Christians allege that Jesus suffered as atonement for mankind's sins. It would appear from the New Testament that Jesus became flesh and blood, that is, a human being, in order to pay the ransom for sins and bring redemp


Zalman Kravitz

Zalman Kravitz

Was Jesus "stricken by his enemies"?

Was Jesus "stricken by his enemies"?

Isaiah 53:4 says that the suffering servant was considered "stricken" by his enemies. Does this describe Jesus in any way? Read on to find out.. Answer: In verse 4 the Gentile nations exclaim, concerning the servant, "we considered him stricken [by God]." The verb appears again in verse 8. This does not describe Jesus in any way whatsoever. The verb, nagua, "stricken," is commonly used in the Jewish Scriptures for being stricken with leprosy (for example, 2 Kings 5:27, 15:5; Job 19:21; Leviti


Zalman Kravitz

Zalman Kravitz

Does "humbled himself and opened not his mouth" describe Jesus?

Does "humbled himself and opened not his mouth" describe Jesus?

Isaiah 53:7 says that the suffering servant "humbled himself and opened not his mouth" as a lamb about to be slaughtered or a sheep dumb before its shearers. Does this describe Jesus' behavior at his trials? Answer: Jesus' claim to be the Messiah was the accusation placed against him before the Sanhedrin and Pilate. To the charge of his messianic claim, Jesus Answered both the Jewish authorities and Pilate in a forceful manner (John 18:19-23, 33-37). The statement: "Therefore Pilate entered


Zalman Kravitz

Zalman Kravitz

Does "despised and we esteemed him not" describe Jesus?

Does "despised and we esteemed him not" describe Jesus?

Does the Gospel's representation of Jesus show fulfillment of the description of the suffering servant: "he was despised and we esteemed him not" (Isaiah 53:3)? Answer: The Gospel accounts claim Jesus was popular throughout his life generally (Luke 2:52) and during his public ministry in particular. The evangelists insist that Jesus was greatly admired by large segments from every level of society. What is more, many were his loyal followers. True, the evangelists claim that the Jewish rulers


Zalman Kravitz

Zalman Kravitz

Does "no form nor comeliness" describe Jesus?

Does "no form nor comeliness" describe Jesus?

Isaiah 53:2 describes the suffering servant as one who "had no form nor comeliness, that we should look upon him, nor appearance that we should delight in him." Does this fit the New Testament's description of Jesus? Answer: According to the Gospels, Jesus was, throughout his entire lifetime, greatly desired by an ever growing multitude of people (Luke 2:40, 46-47). Jesus' positive attributes are strikingly illustrated in Luke's summation of his formative years: "And Jesus kept increasing in w


Zalman Kravitz

Zalman Kravitz

Portion of the great --- he has nothing?

Portion of the great --- he has nothing?

How can Christians apply the phrase v'ayn lo,  "he has nothing" or "he shall have nothing" (Daniel 9:26) and Isaiah 53:12, where the suffering servant receives "a portion with the great," to Jesus? Answer: One needs to understand that both references, when read in the context of Christian theology, refer to Jesus after his death and supposed resurrection: Daniel 9:26 referring to after he is "cut off" and Isaiah 53:12 as a reward for his suffering and death. Yet, v'ayn lo, "he has nothing" or


Zalman Kravitz

Zalman Kravitz