author of john - Jews for Judaism

Why is it said that the term "the Jews" as generally used in the Gospel of John is anti-Semitic?

Why is it said that the term "the Jews" as generally used in the Gospel of John is anti-Semitic? Let's find out. Answer: "The Jews" is used in the Gospel of John seventy-one times as compared to a total of sixteen in the Synoptic Gospels. The overwhelming majority of the seventy-one occurrences convey a negative attitude. The author of John prefers to speak simply of "the Jews" when describing Jesus' interaction with the Jewish population of Galilee and Judea, leaders and commoners alike. The

anti-semitic author of john

Zalman Kravitz

Jun 4, 2025 — 2 min read

A Verse In John 8 You Don't Want To Miss

Continued from Part 6 John’s Jesus states: “Even in your Law it has been written, that the testimony of two men is true [i.e., valid or admissible; see Deuteronomy 17:6, 19:15]. I am he who bears witness of myself, and the Father who sent me bears witness of me” (John 8:17-18). Does this passage show Jesus and God to be ontologically one? If Jesus and “the Father” were not two distinct entities how could they be considered two witnesses? If Jesus and God are one than there would in reality

author of john jesus and god

Zalman Kravitz

Jun 4, 2025 — 3 min read

Where The Pre-Existence Comes To Play With The Followers of Jesus

Continued from Part 12 The author of John expounds the belief that Jesus had a prehuman existence as the Word who was “in the beginning with God” and through whom “all things came into being.” John emphasizes this belief throughout his entire Gospel (John 1:1-3; 17:5, 24). He describes Jesus as “an only begotten from a father” (John 1:14) and “the only begotten Son of God” (John 3:18; see also John 3:16, 1 John 4:9). John’s belief in Jesus as “the only begotten Son of God” rests, as does Pau

author of john jesus

Zalman Kravitz

Jun 4, 2025 — 2 min read