isaiah 53
Continued from Part 14 ISAIAH 53:8 53:8: “As a result of the transgression of my people he has been afflicted.” The literal rendering of this verse is: “From the transgression of my people the stroke [nega‘] to them.” That is, because of the transgressions of the gentiles the
burial of jesus
Continued from Part 15 ISAIAH 53:9 53:9: “his grave was set with the wicked” The burial of Jesus How was Jesus’ grave “set with the wicked”? Many Christians connect “wicked” with the two lestai (“thieves,” “brigands”) executed alongside Jesus (Matthew 27:38, Mark 15:27; “5s,” in John
almah
If 'almah means "young woman" in Hebrew why did the Jewish scholar who translated the Book of Isaiah into Greek use a Greek word for "virgin," parthenos? Answer: The Septuagint is not necessarily a literal translation. Therefore, the use of parthenos by the Septuagint translator
born under law
What are the implications of the New Testament claim that Jesus was "born under law"? Let's find out. Answer: In Galatians 4:4 Paul claims that "God sent forth His Son, born of a woman, born under law." If we presume a birth without
bethlehem
According to the author of Luke, Joseph came to Bethlehem "because he was of the house and family of David, in order to register, along with Mary, who was engaged to him, and was with child" (Luke 2:4-5). Does this verse show that Mary was a
bethlehem
The author of Luke writes: "Now it came about in those days that a decree went out from Caesar Augustus, that a census be taken of all the inhabited earth. This was the first census taken while Quirinius was governor of Syria. And all were proceeding to register for
bethlehem
Micah 5:1 states: "But you, Bethlehem Ephrath, who are little to be among the thousands of Judah, out of you shall come forth to Me that is to be ruler in Israel; whose goings forth are from of old, from ancient days." Is it true that this
hosea 11:1
What are the implications of the author of Matthew using Hosea 11:1 to describe Mary, Joseph, and Jesus being called out of Egypt? Answer: Matthew 2:13-15 makes the claim that Mary, Joseph, and Jesus fled to Egypt until recalled by an angel. This is supposedly in fulfillment
everlasting father
Why do Jews say Isaiah 9:6 does not refer to Jesus? What is the reason behind this? Let's find out. Answer: Christian theologians argue that the name "A wonderful counselor is the mighty God, the everlasting Father, the ruler of peace" refers to Jesus, who
isaiah 9:5 - 6
Isaiah 9:5-6 says: "For a child has been born to us, a son has been given to us; and the government is upon his shoulder; and his name is called A wonderful counselor is the mighty God, the everlasting Father, the ruler of peace; that the government
scepter of judah
The text of Genesis 49:10, "The scepter shall not depart from Judah, nor the ruler's staff from between his feet, until Shiloh comes; and to him shall be the obedience of peoples," appears to say that a Jewish sovereign authority will end, following the coming
proverbs 30:4
Proverbs 30:4 refers to someone who had ascended up to Heaven, was it Jesus that was being referred? Find out in this question and answer post. Is Jesus the son that is referred to in Proverbs 30:4? Answer: In an attempt to prove the divine origin of Jesus,
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